Bộ Đề Thi Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 (Có Lời Giải)

Xem toàn bộ tài liệu Lớp 12: tại đây

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 1)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fitseach of thenumbered blanks from 1 to 5.

SHE STUDIES WHILE HE PLAYS: TRUE OF CHILDREN AND CHIMPS

   Chimpanzees in the wild like to snack on termites, and youngsters learn to fish for them by pocking long sticks and other (1)……..tools into the mounds that large groups of termites build. Researchers found that (2)…………average female chimps in the Gombe National Park in Tanzania learnt how to do termite fishing at the age of 31 months, more than two years earlier than the males.

   The females seem to learn by watching mothers. Researcher Dr. Elisabeth V. Lonsdorf, director of field conservation at the Lincoln Park Zoo in Chicago, said that it is (3)………….to find that, when a young male and female are near a mound, ‘she’s really focusing on termite fishing and he’s spinning himself round (4)………..circles’. Dr Landsdorf and colleagues are studying chimpanzees at the zoo with a new, specially created termite mound, filled with mustard (5)…….than termites.

Question 1:

   A. relative    B. similar

   C. close        D. connected

Question 2:

   A. at      B. by

   C. on      D. for

Question 3:

   A. typical       B. regular

   C. ordinary      D. frequent

Question 4:

   A. in      B. with

   C. to      D. through

Question 5:

   A. other        B. else

   C. instead      D. rather

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thequestions from 6 to 12.

   Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop

   Uncompromising as it is, the dessert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water – loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found: the giants of the North America desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift – footed, running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its populations are largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere in the world.

   The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun – baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.

Question 6: What is the topic of the passage?

   A. Life underground

   B. Animal life in a desert environment

   C. Desert plants

   D. Man’s life in the desert

Question 7: The word “desiccating” means____.

   A. humidifying

   B. killing

   C. drying

   D. life threatening

Question 8: The phrase “those forms” refers to all of the following EXCEPT

   A. water – loving animals

   B. moist – skinned animals

   C. many large animals

   D. the bobcat

Question 9: The author states that one characteristic of animals that live in the desert is that they ____.

   A. are less healthy than animals that live in different places

   B. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals

   C. can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees

   D. live in an accommodating environment

Question 10: Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?

   A. All living things adjust to their environments.

   B. Healthy animals live longer lives.

   C. Water is the basis of life.

   D. Desert life is colorful.

Question 11: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to____.

   A. large animals

   B. the forest animals

   C. water – loving

   D. the desert population.

Question 12: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT

   A. they dig home underground

   B. they are noisy and aggressive

   C. they are ready to hunt after sunset

   D. they sleep during the day

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thequestions from 13 to 20.

   Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers – you’re – out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning , a nine man team. “The New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it was played by and for gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners.

   During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first – nine, and their” muffins“ (the gently duffers who once ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all – salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s “Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a weekly periodical “The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Mid-west proclaimed itself the American League.

Question 13: What is the passage mainly about?

   A. the origin of baseball.

   B. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball

   C. the commercialization of baseball.

   D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century

Question 14: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

   A. the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalize.

   B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that develop in baseball.

   C. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”.

   D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits.

Question 15: The word “inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ____.

   A. requirements

   B. rules

   C. insistence

   D. beginning

Question 16: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its inception?

   A. they didn’t play on weekend

   B. the president would choose teams from among the members

   C. a team might consist of 40 members

   D. they might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine.

Question 17: According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except____.

   A. commercialism became more prosperous

   B. the clubs are smaller

   C. outstanding players got extra income

   D. people gambled on the outcome of game

Question 18: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?

   A. profits soared

   B. a weekly periodical news

   C. wooden stadiums replaced open fields

   D. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed.

Question 19: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to____.

   A. the Western League

   B. growing cities

   C. the Midwest

   D. the American League

Question 20: The word “lavish “in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.

   A. very generous

   B. prolonged

   C. Grand

   D. extensive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicatethe word whose underlined part differs from theother three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 21:

   A. requests        B. calculates

   C. questions      D. attacks

Question 22:

   A. civic        B. service

   C. fertile      D. determine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in theposition of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 23:

   A. contribute      B. dynamics

   C. imagine          D. devastate

Question 24:

   A. habitat        B. expansion

   C. endanger      D. agreement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 25:

   Tom said that he was trying (A) to carry out some (B) campaigns (C) to protect environment and will encourage others (D) to do so.

Question 26:

   My elder (A) sisters, both of them (B) were doctors, said they were too busy (C) to pick (D) me up.

Question 27:

   Tropical (A) rain forests are founded (B) in a (C) belt around the Equator of (D) the Earth.

Question 28:

   It is very (A) difficult for (B) her to prevent (C) him for smoking (D) in her house.

Question 29:

   If we cannot save (A) the forests in their original (B) state, we must save enough (C) to preserve them as living burgeon ecosystem (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 30: The students in class were made _____ very hard

   A. learning      B. learn

   C. to learn      D. having learnt

Question 31: ____ umbrella should not be used during ______ thunderstorm.

   A. a/a       B. the/a

   C. an/a      D. no article/ a

Question 32: I have had a toothache for one week but I still keep _____ going to the dentist.

   A. put on        B. taking off

   C. take on      D. putting off

Question 33: She hasn’t had a _____ week. She seems to have done nothing at all.

   A. productive      B. enthusiastic

   C. economic        D. extensive

Question 34: The police have not found the robbers yet and the bank robbery is still under ____

   A. provision

   B. investigation

   C. explanation

   D. division

Question 35:

   A. the verge

   B. a risk

   C. a verge

   D. stake

Question 36: The university ____ by private funds as well as by tuition income and grants.

   A. supports

   B. is supported

   C. is supporting

   D. has supported

Question 37: She always complained ___ her parents ___ how small her room was or how few clothes she had.

   A. with/ for

   B. with/about

   C. to/ about

   D. to/ for

Question 38: A native speaker of Spanish, for example, will __ to learn than a native speaker of Chinese

   A. find Portuguese much easier

   B. find that Portuguese is much easy

   C. find Portuguese much easy

   D. find Portuguese is much easier

Question 39: I couldn’t help ____ when I saw your face after making up.

   A. to laugh.

   B. for laughing

   C. laughing

   D. laughed

Question 40: When she _____ at the new dress for half part an hour, she asked how much it

   A. have looked/cost

   B. had looked/cost

   C. has been looking/costed

   D. looked/costs

ĐÁP ÁN

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1B 2C 3A 4A 5D
6B 7C 8C 9B 10A
11D 12B 13D 14A 15D
16A 17C 18D 19A 20A
21C 22C 23D 24A 25C
26B 27B 28D 29D 30C
31C 32D 33A 34B 35A
36B 37C 38A 39C 40B

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 2)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

   A. needed        B. decided

   C. invented      D. caused

Question 2:

   A. bomb        B. tomb

   C. combat      D. comment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in theposition of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

   A. university        B. sociology

   C. examination      D. geographical

Question 4:

   A. nature      B. agricultural

   C. forget       D. begin

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5:

   Paris is much (A) more exciting (B) as (C) I expected (D).

Question 6:

   English (A) is speaking (B) in many countries (C) in the world (D).

Question 7:

   Chemical engineering is based in (A) the principles (B) of physics, chemistry (C), and mathematics (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Lan likes music, _________?

   A. doesn’t she      B. does she

   C. is she      D. isn’t she

Question 9: If I ___ you, I would apply for that English course.

   A. am        B. were

   C. had been     D. is

Question 10: I decided _________ the dictionary you told me about.

   A. bought      B. buy

   C. buying      D. to buy

Question 11: Nowadays a large number of young people spend much time_________the Internet.

   A. to surfing      B. surfed

   C. surfing        D. to surf

Question 12: It was not until he failed the final examination _____ he realized how important the revision was.

   A. that      B. who

   C. what      D. and

Question 13: We will go out _________ the rain stops.

   A. until      B. during

   C. while      D. when

Question 14: He would not have been late for school if he _________ up early.

   A. has got      B. got

   C. had got      D. gets

Question 15: John lost the _________bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because of his carelessness .

   A. Japanese beautiful new blue

   B. new beautiful blue Japanese

   C. beautiful Japanese blue new

   D. beautiful new blue Japanese

Question 16: _________you pass a chemist’s, will you get me some aspirins?.

   A. Did       B. Should

   C. Would      D. Had

Question 17: Did you arrive at the station on time? – No, I missed 5 o’clock train; _________ the was an other one after 5 minutes.

   A. Thus          B. Also

   C. However      D. Besides

Question 18: Hardly _________ when the argument begins.

   A. when he arrived

   B. he had arrived

   C. than he arrived

   D. had he arrived

Question 19: The film was really boring. It was _________ I’ve seen.

   A. the most boring film

   B. most boring film

   C. the more boring film

   D. the film more boring

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: – “Would you like something to eat?” – “ ______ . I am not hungry now.”

   A. No, thanks

   B. Good idea, thanks

   C. Thanks, I will

   D. Yes, I would

Question 21: Mary (on the phone) : “Could I speak to Susan?” – Susan : “ _________!”

   A. Talking

   B. Calling

   C. Answering

   D. Speaking

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The cultural and historical sites in Kyoto have been given appropriate care and maintenance.

   A. preservation

   B. revival

   C. recovery

   D. recognition

Question 23: Our parents join hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.

   A. make decisions

   B. put together

   C. take each other’s hands

   D. work together

Shooling is compulsory for all English children from age 5 to 16.

Question 24:

   A. free

   B. optional

   C. constructive

   D. beneficial

Question 25: The original World Cup trophy was given permanently to Brazil to honor that country’s record third World Cup title in 1970.

   A. for good

   B. lastingly

   C. for age

   D. temporarily

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “I will help you with the housework”, Mai said.

   A. Mai promised to help me with the housework.

   B. Mai asked me to help her with the housework.

   C. Mai begged to help me with the housework.

   D. Mai insisted on helping me with the housework.

Question 27: They couldn’t go swimming because of the cold weather.

   A. The cold weather made it impossible to go swimming.

   B. The cold weather prevented them from going swimming

   C. Their going swimming was unable due to the cold weather.

   D. The cold weather made it not capable of going swimming.

Question 28: I can’t help feeling worried about David.

   A. I find it impossible not to worry about David.

   B. I don’t worry about David.

   C. I can do nothing to help David.

   D. I cannot help David stop worrying.

Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.

   A. A waitress, who served us, was very impolite and impatient.

   B. A waitress, which served us, was very impolite and impatient.

   C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient.

   D. A waitress whom served us, was very impolite and impatient.

Question 30: He was successful because he was determined to purse personal goals. He was not talented.

   A. It was his determination to purse personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.

   B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursing his goals.

   C. His success lay in his natural ability, not his determination to purse personal goals.

   D. His determination to purse personal goals made him successful and talented.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

   Always arrive early. If you do not know (31) _____ the organization is located, call for exact directions (32) ___ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 – 10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be (33) _____ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door. Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (34) ____ are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (35) _____ wearing too much jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a tailored suit.

Question 31:

   A. when        B. why

   C. where      D. that

Question 32:

   A. with      B. in

   C. on        D. for

Question 33:

   A. happy            B. pleasant

   C. disappointed      D. excited

Question 34:

   A. attendances      B. attentions

   C. impressions      D. pressures

Question 35:

   A. avoid      B. suggest

   C. enjoy      D. mind

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

   Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy.

   Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world..

Question 36: What is the main topic of this passage?

   A. The number of non-native users of English.

   B. The French influence on the English Language.

   C. The expansion of English as an international language.

   D. The use of English for science and technology.

Question 37: In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to____.

   A. appeared

   B. disappeared

   C. frequented

   D. engaged

Question 38: In the first paragraph, the word “elements” is closest in meaning to____.

   A. declaration

   B. features

   C. curiosities

   D. customs

Question 39: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?

   A. In 1066

   B. around 1350

   C. before 1600

   D. after 1600

Question 40: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world _________

   A. the slave trade

   B. the Norman invasion

   C. missionaries

   D. colonization

ĐÁP ÁN

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1D 2B 3C 4A 5C
6B 7A 8A 9B 10D
11C 12A 13D 14C 15D
16B 17C 18D 19A 20A
21D 22C 23D 24B 25D
26A 27B 28A 29A 30C
31C 32B 33B 34C 35A
36C 37A 38B 39D 40B

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 3)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

   A. muddy        B. punctual

   C. studious      D. culture

Question 2:

   A. land      B. sandy

   C. many      D. candy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

   A. adventure      B. attendance

   C. opponent       D. penalty

Question 4:

   A. represent      B. permanent

   C. continent      D. sentiment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: When the protestor entered the meeting clad only in a beach tower, the audience was dumbfounded.

   A. speechless

   B. excited

   C. content

   D. applauding

Question 6: His new work has enjoyed a very good review from critics and readers.

   A. opinion

   B. viewing

   C. look

   D. regard

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: The motorist felt that the ticket for infraction was unwarranted.

   A. conscientious

   B. inadvertent

   C. inevitable

   D. justified

Question 8: On November 25 1972, something dreadful happened on board of the brigantine Mary Celeste, causing all crew members to hastily abandon the ship.

   A. hold on

   B. stay on

   C. take care of

   D. save for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9:

   Humans (A) have done (B) great advances (C) in technology at the expense (D) of the environment.

Question 10:

   Hardly did he enter (A) the room when (B) all the lights (C) went (D) out.

Question 11:

   Publishing in the UK (A), the book has won (B) a number of awards in (C) recent regional book fairs (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer

Question 12: Labor unions and the company______ in a confrontation over plans to curb benefits.

   A. carried away

   B. faced off

   C. caught up

   D. showed up

Question 13: What university will you take an_________ examination into?

   A. entrance

   B. entry

   C. admission

   D. attendance

Question 14: At first the children enjoyed the game but quite soon _______ novelty.

   A. died out

   B. wore off

   C. went off

   D. died out

Question 15: Although he claimed to have left his job voluntarily, he was actually__________ for misconduct.

   A. released

   B. dismissed

   C. resigned

   D. dispelled

Question 16: ______ the fifth largest among the night planets that make up our solar system.

   A. The Earth is

   B. The Earth being

   C. That the Earth

   D. Being the Earth

Question 17: ________ but he also proves himself a good athlete.

   A. Not only did he show himself a good student

   B. Not only he showed himself a good student

   C. He did not show himself only a good student

   D. A good student not only showed himself

Question 18: It is recommended that he__________ this course.

   A. took

   B. take

   C. takes

   D. taking

Question 19: Our boss would rather_________ during the working hours.

   A. us not chat

   B. we didn’t chat

   C. we don’t chat

   D. us not chatting

Question 20: The sky was cloudy and foggy. We went to the beach, _________.

   A. so

   B. yet

   C. however

   D. even though

Question 21: Do you think doing the household chores is the__________of the women only?

   A. responsibly

   B. responsible

   C. responsibility

   D. responsive

Question 22: He did some odd jobs at home__________.

   A. disappointment

   B. disappointedly

   C. disappointed

   D. disappoint

Question 23: “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” –“__________”

   A. What a lovely toy! Thanks.

   B. Have a nice day!

   C. The same to you!

   D. What a pity!

Question 24: My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise.

   A. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick.

   B. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick.

   C. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick.

   D. If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would do sick.

Question 25: He read The Old Man and The Sea, a novel__________by Ernest Hemingway.

   A. written

   B. writing

   C. which written

   D. that wrote

Question 26: If you don’t work much harder, you won’t pass the exam.

   Unless you__________much harder, you__________the exam.

   A. work / will pass

   B. don’t work / will pass

   C. don’t work / won’t pass

   D. work / won’t pass

Question 27: It was nice of you to give me the present. Thank you” Ben said to Mary. Ben thanked Mary__________the present.

   A. of giving him

   C. for giving him

   B. it had been nice of her to give him

   D. that she had been nice to give him

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 28: “You shouldn’t have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane.

   A. Jane suspected that Frank had leaked their confidential report to the press.

   B. Jane criticized Frank for having disclosed their confidential report to the press.

   C. Jane accused Frank of having cheated the press with their confidential report.

   D. Jane blamed Frank for having flattered the press with their confidential report.

Question 29: “Don’t forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leader told us.

   A. The team leader ordered us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

   B. The team leader reminded us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

   C. The team leader asked us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

   D. The team leader simply wanted us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

Question 30: “If you don’t pay the ransom, we’ll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us.

   A. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.

   B. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.

   C. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.

   D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

   The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as well, especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contact certain illnesses because of the characteristic foods they consume.

   That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meat) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging label of processed food are helpful or harmful.

   The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.

   Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medical purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.

   A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest. Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food without our knowledge.

Question 31: How has science done to disservice to people?

   A. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food

   B. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetable

   C. It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food

   D. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.

Question 32: The word “prone” is nearest meaning to_________.

   A. healthy

   B. unlikely

   C. supine

   D. predisposed

Question 33: The word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to_________.

   A. trouble-making

   B. money-making

   C. cancer-causing

   D. colorretaining

Question 34: What are nitrates used for?

   A. They preserve the color of meat

   B. They preserve flavor in package food

   C. There are objects of research

   D. They cause the animals become fatter

Question 35: FDA means____________.

   A. Federal Dairy Additives

   B. Food and Drug Administration

   C. Final Difficult Analysis

   D. Food Direct Additives

Question 36: All of the following statements are TRUE except

   A. Drug are always given to animals for medical reasons

   B. Food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world

   C. Researchers have known about the potential hazard of food additives for more than 45 years

   D. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals

Question 37: What is best title for this passage?

   A. The food you eat can affect your health

   B. Harmful and Harmless substances in food

   C. Avoiding injurious substances in food

   D. Improving health through a Natural Diet

Question 38: The word “fit” could be best replaced by which of the following?

   A. suitable

   B. tasty

   C. athletic

   D. adaptable

Question 39: The word “these” refers to___________?

   A. researchers

   B. nitrates and nitrites

   C. meats

   D. colors

Question 40: The word “additives” is closest meaning to__________.

   A. begin substance

   B. natural substance

   C. dangerous substance

   D. added substance

ĐÁP ÁN

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1C 2C 3D 4A 5A
6A 7D 8B 9B 10A
11A 12B 13A 14B 15B
16A 17A 18B 19B 20C
21C 22C 23B 24A 25C
26D 27C 28B 29B 30C
31A 32D 33C 34A 35B
36A 37A 38A 39B 40D

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 4)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

   A. animal        B. character

   C. imagine      D. personality

Question 2:

   A. degree      B. critical

   C. fertile        D. minimum

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

   A. economics        B. engineering

   C. information      D. geography

Question 4:

   A. opponent        B. vertical

   C. windsurfing      D. penalty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each question.

Question 5:

   Had it not (A) been for you help me (B), I wouldn’t (C) have succeeded (D).

Question 6:

   I enjoyed talking (A) to the (B) people with that (C) I met at the party (D) last night.

Question 7:

   It is vitally (A) important that (B) she takes (C) this medication (D) night and morning.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Look! The yard is wet. It ___ last night.

   A. couldn’t have rained

   B. must rain

   C. must have rained

   D. should have rained

Question 9: I live next to a nursing home for _____ very old.

   A. the      B. a

   C. an       D. ∅

Question 10: My problems are getting _______.

   A. more and more bad

   B. bader and bader

   C. worse and worse

   D. the worse and worse

Question 11: What happened _______ their car broke down on the motorway so they didn’t get to Joe’s wedding on time.

   A. to be that

   B. being that

   C. was that

   D. to that

Question 12: According to this newspaper, John is said ____ a new record for the long jump.

   A. establishing

   B. to establish

   C. established

   D. to have established

Question 13: Is he guilty or innocent _____ the crime?

   A. in      B. from

   C. of      D. by

Question 14: This is very _______! Can’t you practise your violin somewhere else?

   A. convenient

   B. conveniently

   C. inconvenient

   D. convenience

Question 15: The child was told to _____ for being rude to his uncle.

   A. excuse

   B. apologize

   C. forgive

   D. confess

Question 16: I just couldn’t remember her name even though it was on the _____ of my tongue.

   A. edge      B. tip

   C. top        D. front

Question 17: “I’m going for an interview for a job this afternoon.” “Good luck! I’ll keep my ______ crossed for you”

   A. legs      B. fingers

   C. arms      D. hands

Question 18: She is a friendly person. She gets ______ all her neighbours.

   A. up well with

   B. down well with

   C. on well with

   D. get off with

Question 19: Look this document ________carefully before you sign it.

   A. up      B. on

   C. at      D. over

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Susan accidentally stepped on Denise’s foot.

   – Susan: “Oops! I’m sorry, Denise.”

   – Denise: “ ______”

   A. You shouldn’t do that.

   B. It’s alright.

   C. You are welcome.

   D. It’s nonsense.

Question 21: Mai and Nam are talking about the cell phone that Nam has just bought.

   – Mai: “Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone, Nam”

   – Nam: “_____”.

   A. Oh, I don’t know.

   B. Thank you. I’m glad you like it.

   C. You’re welcome.

   D. I agree with you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 22: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.

   A. wealthy

   B. kind

   C. broke

   D. poor

Question 23: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

   A. earn money

   B. spend money

   C. sit still

   D. economize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.

   A. dissatisfied

   B. excited

   C. shocked

   D. interested

Question 25: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

   A. large quantity

   B. excess

   C. small quantity

   D. sufficiency

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: We have run out of the items you want.

   A. We have to run out to buy the items you want.

   B. The items you want are out of our shop.

   C. For the items you want, we must run out.

   D. The items you want have been out of stock.

Question 27: She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting.

   A. She hardly had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

   B. Hardly she had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

   C. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting.

   D.She hadn’t begun to speak when people started interrupting.

Question 28: “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man.

   A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

   B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

   C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.

   D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.

Question 29: Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.

   A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.

   B. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.

   C. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.

   D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.

Question 30: The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames. The building burned down completely.

   A. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames.

   B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned down completely.

   C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the building.

   D. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down completely.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The threat to the Environment

   Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in danger. Many species of animals will become (31) ____ if we do not make an effort to protect them.

   There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are (32) ____ for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught alive and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat – the place where they live – is (33) _____. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (34) ____ wildlife. The most successful animals on earth – human beings – will soon be the only ones (35) ____, unless we can solve this problem

Question 31:

   A. disappeared      B. vanished

   C. empty            D. extinct

Question 32:

   A. hunted      B. chased

   C. game         D. extinct

Question 33:

   exhausting       B. departing

   C. escaping      D. disappearing

Question 34:

   A. spoil          B. harm

   C. wound      D. wrong

Question 35:

   A. survived      B. over

   C. missing        D. left

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

   On March 15, Dunes View Middle School held a contest for school bands. Student bands tried out for the opportunity to perform at the school picnic, which will be held at the end of June. The winner of the contest was the band called Four Square. “We’re very proud that we won the contest and are excited to perform at the picnic,” says Peter Zandt, who plays the guitar in the band. “And since we hope to perform someday at other local places, like restaurants and parks, this will be a great first step.”

   The contest was the creation of music teacher Mr. Lopez and drama teacher Ms. Cho. The two thought of the idea while discussing recent years’ school picnics. “The picnic is one of the biggest events of the year, but it has become a bit formulaic,” said Ms. Cho. “The activities are the same every year. We thought that a performance by a student band would make the school picnic more interesting and fun.” Mr. Lopez, Ms. Cho, and three other teachers judged the contest, which took place in the gym. Eight student bands signed up to audition. The bands varied in their musical forms: there were several rock bands, a folk band, and even a jazz band. “I’m disappointed that my band didn’t win, but I think the judges made the right choice,” says student Marisol Varga, a member of the folk trio called The Bell Girls. “Four Square is really good.”

   To see if the bands could present a wide range of musical skills, the teachers asked them each to prepare two songs: one song with original words, and another in which students played instrumental music only. The judges finally chose the band Four Square as the winner of the contest. Four Square is a rock band with an unusual twist: it includes a violin player! The members of Four Square write their own songs and practice three times a week after school. Students and teachers agreed that the band competition was a big success. All are looking forward to the school picnic in June.

Question 36: Which would be the most appropriate headline for the article?

   A. Famous Band Visits School

   B. Teachers Give Music Lessons

   C. Students Have Fun at School Picnic

   D. School Holds Student Band Contest

Question 37: What is probably true about school picnics in recent years?

   A. They were held in March.

   B. They were not very exciting.

   C. They were very hard to organize.

   D. They included musical performances

Question 38: The word formulaic is closest in meaning to _____.

   A. expensive

   B. uncertain

   C. long

   D. dull

Question 39: What type of band is NOT mentioned in the article?

   A. Pop

   B. Jazz

   C. Folk

   D. Rock

Question 40: Why did the teachers ask each band to play two songs?

   A. To decide which songs to play at the picnic

   B. To see if the bands could play a variety of songs

   C. To make sure the contest did not go on too long

   D. To make the concert more enjoyable for students

ĐÁP AN

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1B 2C 3D 4A 5B
6C 7C 8C 9A 10C
11C 12D 13C 14C 15B
16B 17B 18C 19D 20B
21B 22A 23D 24A 25C
26D 27C 28A 29D 30A
31D 32A 33D 34B 35D
36D 37B 38D 39A 40B

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 5)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

   A. reserved      B. locked

   C. forced          D. touched

Question 2:

   A. arrange      B. arise

   C. area          D. arrive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

   A. household      B. secure

   C. pressure        D. active

Question 4:

   A. supportive      B. leftovers

   C. confidence      D. hospital

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5:

   The police is (A) now investigating (B) the robbery that took place (C) in our neighborhood (D) last night.

Question 6:

   My pen has (A) very few ink (B) in it, so could (C) you give me some (D)?

Question 7:

   Neither William or (A) his brother stole (B) the rambutans from (C) our orchard (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Frankly, I don’t know how he ______on the small amount of money he earns.

   A. gets down

   B. gets over

   C. gets at

   D. gets by

Question 9: _________ my homework last week, I would have got a good mark.

   A. If I did

   B. I had done

   C. Had I done

   D. Only if I done

Question 10: Do you have any objections _________this new road?

   A. at      B. with

   C. to      D for

Question 11: Here is the man _________my brother is going to_________.

   A. who his daughter – marry

   B. whose daughter – get married to

   C. whose daughter – get married

   D. his daughter – marry

Question 12: He’s always trying _____________me.

   A. to avoid to meet

   B. avoiding meeting

   C. to avoid meeting

   D. avoiding to meet

Question 13: Ms Kent expects________about any revisions in manuscript before it is printed.

   A. consulting

   B. being consulted

   C. consult

   D. to be consulted

Question 14: After nine months without any rain, the country was facing one of the worst_ __________in the last thirty years.

   A. draughts

   B. floods

   C. eruptions

   D. droughts

Question 15: If my candidate had won the election, I _________ happy now.

   A. am

   B. would be

   C. can be

   D. would have been

Question 16: George and Paul are the two men _____________in my factory.

   A. working

   B. to work

   C. work

   D. worked

Question 17: How much longer do we have to wait? This is starting to get on my__________.

   A. mind

   B. back

   C. nerves

   D. nose

Question 18: I enjoy my job as a baker, but it’s taken me over five years to _________to working at night.

   A. be use

   B. get used

   C. used

   D. getting used

Question 19: I find it difficult to pay my bills as prices keep___________.

   A. gaining

   B. raising

   C. growing

   D. rising

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Lora: “Do you mind if I turn on the fan?’’ —- Maria: “ __________.”

   A. Not for me

   B. Not at all

   C. Never mind

   D. Not enough

Question 21: Mary: ” Thanks a lot for your help.’’ ——– Nick: “____________.”

   A. My happiness

   B. My delight

   C. My excitement

   D. My pleasure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Once in a while I visit my grandparents on the farm and stay there for some days.

   A. Regularly

   B. Sometimes

   C. Usually

   D. Rarely

Question 23: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece.

   A. a large work of art

   B. an expensive work of art

   C. an exellent work of art

   D. a down – to – earth work of art

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures.

   A. physical

   B. severe

   C. beneficial

   D. damaging

Question 25: Vietnam’s admission to the Word Trade Organization (WTO) has promoted its trade relations with other countries.

   A. balanced

   B. restricted

   C. expanded

   D. boosted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “Why don’t you get up early to do morning exercises?” Peter asked me.

   A. Peter advised me to get up early to do morning exercises.

   B. Peter recommended me not to get up early to do morning exercises.

   C. Peter told me the reason why I did not get up early to do morning exercises.

   D. Peter suggested that he should get up early to do morning exercises.

Question 27: Alan worked too hard at the office, and this led to his illness.

   A. Because Alan worked too hard at the office, and this led to his illness.

   B. Alan’s working too hard at the office, and this led to his illness.

   C. Alan’s illness resulted from his working too hard at the office.

   D. His working too hard at the office resulted from his illness.

Question 28: It was overeating that caused his heart attack.

   A. But for his overeating, he wouldn’t have had a heart attack.

   B. But for his overeating, he wouldn’t have a heart attack.

   C. If it wasn’t his overeating, he wouldn’t have had a heart attack.

   D. Had he had overeating, he wouldn’t have had a heart attack.

Question 29: They booked the hotel. They had stayed there on their honeymoon.

   A. They booked the hotel where they had stayed on their honeymoon.

   B. They booked the hotel where they had stayed there on their honeymoon.

   C. They booked the hotel which they had stayed on their honeymoon.

   D. They booked the hotel which they had stayed there on their honeymoon.

Question 30: Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.

   A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health.

   B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.

   C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.

   D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

   Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the energy to get out of bed in time for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of children are in danger of getting so (31) ________ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at risk. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (32) ________ teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters gets anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.

    This (33)________ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s ability to concentrate at school. The concentration between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well established. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects (34)________ how children perform the next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep that they release a hormone that is essential for their “growth spurt” (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some (35) ________, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.

Question 31:

   A. less      B. little

   C. few       D. much

Question 32:

   A. because     B. so

   C. or            D. whereas

Question 33:

   A. rises        B. raises

   C. comes      D. results

Question 34:

   A. on      B. in

   C. at      D. to

Question 35:

   A. level       B. rate

   C. point      D. extent

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

   The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give everyone on the planet access to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lots of information: more than 2.5 million articles in 200 different languages covering just about every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikipedia is not written by experts, but by ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their names are not published. They contribute to Wikipedia simply because they want to share their knowledge.

   Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human knowledge. The word itself comes from ancient Greek, and means “a complete general education”. Real popularity for encyclopedias came in the nineteenth century in Europe and the United States, with the publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary readers. With the invention of the CD-ROM, the same amount of information could be put on a few computer discs. Then with the Internet, it became possible to create an online encyclopedia that could be constantly updated, like Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even Internet-based encyclopedias like Encarta were written by paid experts. At first, Wikipedia, the brainchild of Jimmy Wales, a businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these. In 2001, he had the idea for an Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide information quickly and easily to everyone. Furthermore, that information would be available free, unlike other Internet encyclopedias at that time.

   But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to write the articles, and so he began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as it took them a long time to finish their work. He decided to open up the encyclopedia in a radical new way, so that everyone would have access not only to the information, but also to the process of putting this information online. To do this, he used what is known as “Wiki” software (from the Hawaiian word for “fast”), which allows users to create or alter content on web page. The system is very simple: When you open the web site, you can simply search for information or you can log on to become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article that interests you – about your hometown, for example – you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until no one is interested in making any more changes.

Question 36: Wikipedia is written by___________.

   A. paid written

   B. millionaires

   C. normal people

   D. world experts

Question 37: The phrase “these writers” in the first paragraph refers to ___________.

   A. ordinary readers

   B. ordinary people

   C. encyclopedia experts

   D. every subject

Question 38: The word “brainchild” in the second paragraph of the passage can be best replaced by______.

   A. child

   B. father

   C. born

   D. product

Question 39: The word “approach” in the third paragraph of the passage means ________.

   A. method

   B. idea

   C. writing

   D. time

Question 40: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the followings EXCEPT __________.

   A. have access to information

   B. edit information

   C. modify information

   D. determinate the website

ĐÁP ÁN

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1A 2C 3B 4A 5A
6B 7A 8D 9C 10C
11B 12C 13D 14D 15B
16A 17C 18B 19D 20B
21D 22B 23C 24C 25B
26A 27C 28A 29A 30B
31B 32D 33B 34A 35D
36C 37B 38D 39B 40D

 

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